$E[X|\mathscr G]$ is any (bounded or integrable or something) random variable $Z$ s.t.
- $Z$ is $\mathscr G-$measurable
- $$E[X1_G] = E[Z1_G]$$
If $Z=X$ and $X=c1_A$ where $P(A)=1$, then it looks like $Z=X$ has $(2)$ covered but not $(1)$. If that's the case, please give a counterexample. Otherwise, how does it have $(1)$ covered?
Proof. All we need to show is that the constant variable $Y=c$ is a version of $E(X|\mathcal{G})$.
Q.E.D
[Added:] Note that the equality $E(X|\mathcal{G})=X$ should be understood as $$ E(X|\mathcal{G})=X\quad a.s. $$ which means $X$ is equal to a version of $E(X|\mathcal{G})$ almost surely. But $X$ itself does not have to be a version of $E(X|\mathcal{G})$ and thus does not have to be $\mathcal{G}$-measurable.
[Added later] Suppose $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},P)$ is a probability space and $X=c$ almost surely. Then by definition $P(X\neq c)=0$ and if one defines $$ A=\{\omega\in\Omega\mid X(\omega)= c \} $$ then indeed, $P(A)=1$ and $X=c1_A$ almost surely. But there is no guarantee that $X=c1_A$, (which means $X(\omega)=c1_A(\omega)$ for every $\omega\in\Omega$, )because although $X=c$ on $A$, $X$ could be not zero on the complement of $A$.