I am having a bit of a hard time proving the following statement:
Show that $( R \circ S ) \cap T = \varnothing$ iff $(\mathrm{R}^{-1} \circ T) \cap S= \varnothing$.
I sort of understand composition of functions, inverse functions, and set theory individually, but when put together I seem to get confused.
It would be wonderful if anyone could be of help, as I'm not even sure how to begin.
Thank you!
EDIT: See attempt at the question in the answers
If $(R \circ S) \cap T)$ is empty, then
not exists $a,x,y$ with $xRa$ and $aSy$ and $xTy$.
If $(R^{−1} \circ T) \cap S)$ is empty, then
not exists $a,x,y$ with $aRx$ and $aTy$ and $xSy$.
Lo and behold, with a simple switch around of variables...