is it possible to prove it like that:
$\begin{gather*} x\cdot z < y\cdot z \quad | \cdot z^{-1} \\ x\cdot \underbrace{(z \cdot z^{-1})}_{\overset{}=1} \overset{}< y \cdot \underbrace{(z \cdot z^{-1})}_{\overset{}=1} \\ 1\cdot x \overset{}< 1\cdot y \\ x \overset{}< y \quad \Box \end{gather*} $
Thanks in advance!
If $x<y$ then $0<y-x$. Since $0<z$. Then, by multiplicative axiom, you have $0<(y-x)(z)$. So, $0<yz-xz$. Hence $xz<yz$.