Let $P = [p_{ij}] \in \mathsf{M}_n (\{0,1\})$ (i.e., $p_{ij} = 0$ or $p_{ij} = 1)$ and suppose that $$ \sum_{i=1}^n p_{ij} = 1,~i=1,\dots,n $$ and $$ \sum_{j=1}^n p_{ij} = 1,~j=1,\dots,n. $$ Prove that $ P^\top P = I_n $.
I have no idea how to prove this. I always just considered that $ P^\top P = I_n $ was true so I am coming up with no idea on how do do this.
so my question how do I prove this question?
I don't know if the title is accurate, but it you have a better one feel free to change it.
$$ \sum_{i=1}^n p_{ij} = 1,~i=1,\dots,n $$
means each column sums to $1$, since $P$ is a binary matrix, there is exactly one $1$ in each column.
and $$ \sum_{j=1}^n p_{ij} = 1,~j=1,\dots,n. $$
means each row sum to $1$, similarly, there is exactly one $1$ in each row.
Hence $P$ is a permutation matrix.
Hence $P^T=P^{-1}$.