Say we wanted to show that $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$ was not uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$, I will restate a proof I saw on another question, or rather a hint that I saw and my attempt to formulate a proof of it. We can strive for some contradiction, supposing that is was uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$,
$$\forall \epsilon > 0 \ \exists \delta > 0 \ \forall x,y \in (0,1) \ : \ |x-y|<\delta \implies |\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}|<\epsilon.$$
Then fix some $\epsilon=\frac{1}{2}$, and choosing $x=\frac{1}{n}$ and $y=\frac{1}{n+1}$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$, then we can certainly find some $\delta$ such that $|\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}|<\delta$, however this implies that $1<\frac{1}{2}$, which is clearly a contradiction. Then this is supposed to prove that it isn't uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$?
What I was thinking is that wouldn't this be practically identical to choosing some fixed $x=\frac{1}{3}$ and $y=\frac{1}{2}$, then we can again find a $\delta$ such that $|\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2}|<\delta$ which implies that $1<\frac{1}{2}$ again.
What is the difference between the two approaches? Intuitively speaking, we would want to find some $\delta$ that works for all $x,y$, however I don't see how the choice of $\delta$ satisfying $|\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}|<\delta$ works for all $x,y$ as any choice of $n$ will not give you every combination of $x,y$, one because there exists rationals that cannot be written in such a form and the irrationals are also dense in the reals.
I need some verification for how these kinds of proofs of non-uniform continuity works.
And you are right. Formulated this way, this argument seems to imply more.
But the argument is wrong, precisely here
it should read
or something like this.
Probably you are just confused by logical quantifiers. In general, if you aim to prove a formula of the form $$ \forall \, \epsilon > 0 \ \exists \, \delta > 0 \ \forall \, x,y \in (0,1) \ : \ p $$ (for example, uniform continuity of some function), you need to prove $$ \exists \, \delta > 0 \ \forall \, x,y \in (0,1) \ : \ p $$ for any $\epsilon > 0$. So, given $\epsilon$ you choose $\delta$, and then $p$ is supposed hold for any $(x,y) \in (0,1)$. Unformally, you can think that your opponent chooses $\epsilon$, then you choose $\delta$, then your opponent chooses $x,y$.
If you are proving that a given function is not uniformly continuous, you aim at $$ \neg \forall \, \epsilon > 0 \ \exists \, \delta > 0 \ \forall \, x,y \in (0,1) \ : \ p, $$ or in other words, $$ \exists \, \epsilon > 0 \ \forall \, \delta > 0 \ \exists \, x,y \in (0,1) \ : \ \neg p. $$ So the game is quite the opposite: you get to choose $\epsilon$, then your opponent chooses $\delta$, then you choose $x$ and $y$. If you can do it so that $p$ is always false, you win.