I need to prove that $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log(x) }{(1+x^2)^2}\,dx = -\frac{\pi}{4}$ using the Residue theorem. I'm trying to solve using the function $f(z)=\dfrac{\log(z)}{(1+z^2)^2}$ (branch of $\log(z)$ with argument between $-\pi/2$ and $3\pi/2$) and integrate over the curve $\gamma=[-R,-r] + \gamma_r +[r,R] + \gamma_R$, where $\gamma_r(t)=re^{-it}, t\in (0,\pi)$ and $\gamma_R(t)=Re^{it}, t\in (0,\pi)$. And I've already computed that $\operatorname{Res}(f,i)= -\pi/2 -\pi^2/4$. Also I think that limit when $R$ goes to $\infty$, the integral over $\gamma_R$ goes to $0$.
My big problem is the integral over $\gamma_r$.
We work with
$$f(z) = \frac{\mathrm{log}(z)}{(z+i)^2(z-i)^2}$$
where $\log(z)$ is the principal branch with argument in $(-\pi,\pi].$ We use a semicircular contour indented at the origin wih radius $R$ in the upper half plane. Let $\Gamma_0$ be the segment on the positive real axis up to $R$, $\Gamma_1$ the big semicircle of radius $R$, $\Gamma_2$ the segment on the real axis coming in from $-R$ and finally $\Gamma_3$ the small semicircle of radius $\epsilon$ enclosing the origin. We then have
$$\left(\int_{\Gamma_0} + \int_{\Gamma_1}+ \int_{\Gamma_2}+ \int_{\Gamma_3}\right) f(z) \; dz = 2\pi i \times \mathrm{Res}_{z=i} f(z).$$
We have
$$\mathrm{Res}_{z=i} f(z) = \left. \left(\frac{\mathrm{log}(z)}{(z+i)^2}\right)'\right|_{z=i} = \left. \left(\frac{1}{z} \frac{1}{(z+i)^2} - 2 \frac{\mathrm{log}(z)}{(z+i)^3}\right)\right|_{z=i} \\ = \frac{1}{4i^3} - \frac{\pi i}{8i^3} = \frac{\pi}{8} + \frac{i}{4}$$
Observe that in the limit
$$\int_{\Gamma_0} f(z) \; dz = \int_0^\infty \frac{\log(x)}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx = J.$$
For $\Gamma_1$ we have by ML estimate $\lim_{R\to\infty} \pi R \times \sqrt{\log^2 R+ \pi^2} / (R-1)^4 = 0,$ so this vanishes.
Furthermore for $\Gamma_2$
$$\int_{\Gamma_2} f(z) \; dz = \int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{\log(|x|)+ \pi i}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx = \int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{\log(|x|)}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx + \pi i \int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx \\ = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\log(|x|)}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx + \pi i \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx = J + \pi i K.$$
For $\Gamma_3$ we again use ML and get $\lim_{\epsilon\to 0} \pi \epsilon \times \sqrt{\log^2 \epsilon +\pi^2} = 0$, so this too vanishes. We have shown that in the limit
$$2 J + \pi i K = 2\pi i\times \left(\frac{\pi}{8} + \frac{i}{4}\right) = - \frac{\pi}{2} + \frac{\pi^2}{4} i.$$
We know that $J$ and $K$ are real numbers, hence,
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #00A000]{ \int_0^\infty \frac{\log(x)}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx = - \frac{\pi}{4} \quad\text{and}\quad \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^2} \; dx = \frac{\pi}{4}.}$$