Let $p_1$, $p_2$ be distinct primes. Using the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic prove that a natural number $n$ is divisible by $p_1p_2$ if and only if $n$ is divisible by $p_1$ and $n$ is divisible by $p_2$.
Thus in symbolic terms I have to prove that
$n = (p_{1}p_{2})x_{1} \iff n = p_{1}x_{2} \wedge n = p_{2}x_{3}$ where $x_{1-3} \in \mathbb{N}$
I understand this in terms of a double implication,
$n =(p_{1}p_{2})x_{1} \Rightarrow n = p_{1}x_{2} \wedge n = p_{2}x_{3}$
and
$n =(p_{1}p_{2})x_{1} \Leftarrow n = p_{1}x_{2} \wedge n = p_{2}x_{3}$
If I prove both, I will have proved the statement.
The first implication is easy to prove, it doesn't even require me to use the FTA at all. I assume it holds and then decompose it in those two sub expressions using algebraic manipulation.
But I'm guessing for the second one I will need to the FTA somehow... and I haven't really gotten far. I could use a contrapositive, maybe.
How can I approach this? I know it is really simple, I feel awkward for asking this question but an insight would be useful.
Is there another more direct method?
$\Rightarrow$ part:
If $p_1 p_2 \mid n$ then $n = m p_1 p_2 = (m p_1) p_2 = (m p_2)p_1$. It is obvious then $p_1 \mid n$ and $p_2 \mid n$
$\Leftarrow$ part:
If $p_1 \mid n$ then $n = n_1p_1$. Now if $p_2 \mid n$ then $p_2 \mid n_1p_1$. But $p_2 \nmid p_1$ since $p_1$ and $p_2$ are different prime numbers, then $p_2 \mid n_1$ must hold, which means $n_1 = n_2 p_2$. Therefore $n = n_2 p_1 p_2$ or $p_1 p_2 \mid n$