Proving the inclusion map of an integral domain into its quotient field is an epimorphism

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As a well-known example of a ring homomorphism which is monic and epic, but not a ring isomorphism, serves the inclusion map $\iota:\mathbb Z\hookrightarrow\mathbb Q$. While the monocity follows immediately from $\mathbb Q$ being the quotient field of $\mathbb Z$, showing that $\iota$ is an epimorphism requires a little more (not much) work. One way is elementwise as done here.

Generalizing the aforementioned one arrives at the following fact

Let $R$ be an integral domain. The inclusion $\iota:R\hookrightarrow Q(R)$ into the quotient field $Q(R)$ is an epimorphism.

Proof$~~$Let $f,g:Q(R)\rightrightarrows F$ be field homomorphisms such that $f\circ \iota=g\circ\iota=:\varphi$. It follows that $\varphi:R\to F$, viewed as a ring homomorphism, is monic aswell. By the universal property of the quotient field this yields a unique field homomorphisms $\overline\varphi:Q(R)\to F$ such that $\varphi=\overline\varphi\circ\iota$. This gives a commutative diagram

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From here it follows that $f=\overline\varphi=g$ as desired.

Is the given proof correct? If so, where can it be further improved; if not, where did I went wrong? Note that I am particularly interested in an elementfree proof using the universal property of the quotient field rather than an elementwise approach such as the one linked.

Thanks in advance!

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The outline of your proof is fine, but you should give an argument as to why you can choose $F$ to be a field. At first sight you should allow $F$ to be any ring, since this is the category you are working in. Now since $Q(R)$ is a field, the image of any morphism $Q(R)\to A$ to a ring $A$ is a field, except when $A$ is the zero ring. Try to write an appropriate case distinction and it shoule be fine.