I'm trying to proof the following statement coming from a book:
"Pushforward of the vector field $\dfrac{d}{dx}$ by exponential, i.e $exp_{*}\dfrac{d}{dx}$ = $x\dfrac{d}{dx}$ on $R_{+}^*$"
The only statement I have in my possession is that for $\phi$ a diffeomorphism between $M \rightarrow N$ , and $X$ a vector field, (which is a section of $TM$), on has the following property:
$\forall x$ in $N$
$(\phi_{*}X)(x) = d_{\phi^{-1}(x)}\phi$ . $X(\phi^{-1}(x))$
Hence, I tried applying the formula, $exp_{*}\dfrac{d}{dx}(x)$ = $(d_{\exp^{-1}(x)}\exp)$ . $\dfrac{d}{dx}(\exp^{-1}(x))$ = $d_{\ln(x)}\exp$ . $\dfrac{d}{dx}(\ln(x))$
= $d_{\ln(x)}\exp$ . $\dfrac{1}{x}$ = $exp(1/x)$
But if the result I'm trying to prove is right, I should have that $\forall x$ in $R_{+}^*$ $x\dfrac{d}{dx}(x)$ = $x$
Am I missing something more conceptual ? Thank you in advance for explanation
The pushforward of a vector field is well-defined just by a diffeomorphism (or in a Lie group), that is, if $\varphi :M\to N$ is such diffeomorphism then $\varphi _*:\mathfrak{X}(M)\to \mathfrak{X}(N)$, where $\mathfrak{X}(D)$ is the space of smooth vector fields on $D$.
The pushforward is defined by
$$ (\varphi _*X)_{\varphi (p)}f=X_p(f\circ \varphi ) $$
In this case if $\varphi :\mathbb{R}\to (0,\infty ),\, x\mapsto e^x$ you have
$$ \left(\exp_*\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\right)_rf=\left .\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\right|_{\ln r}(f \circ \exp)=(f'\circ \exp)(\ln r)\exp'(\ln r)=r\cdot f'(r)=\left .t\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\right|_{r}f $$
where $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ is the canonical basis of $\mathfrak{X}((0,\infty ))$ and $f$ is any smooth function in $(0,\infty )$.