Because I had to restrict the sine domain to $ \left[ -\frac{\pi }{2},\frac{\pi }{2}\right] $ is it correct to write, let say $$\arcsin \left( \sin \left( \frac{3\pi }{2}\right) \right) =-\frac{\pi }{2}\ ?$$
EDIT
For example, if you change the name from "sin" to "Sin" when you restrict the domain, and then define "arcSin" or something like that, and use this new defined functions in the formula, it is clear that the argument of the "Sine" function is out of the domain. But here, the "sin" function is the original or the one I made with a restricted domain?
Maybe I had to write $\arcsin (\sin (7\pi/2))$, for example, in my question. What I am trying to argue is that with the sine domain restriction, maybe is no longer correct to write, or to justified, the input of an angle out of the new domain of the new sine function.
By definition, $\arcsin x = \theta$ if $\theta$ is the unique angle in the interval $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$ such that $\sin\theta = x$. Since $$\arcsin\left[\sin\left(\frac{3\pi}{2}\right)\right] = \arcsin(-1)$$ and $-\pi/2$ is the unique angle $\theta$ in the interval $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$ such that $\sin\theta = -1$, your answer is correct.
Note that $\arcsin(\sin\theta) = \theta$ if and only if $\theta \in [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$ since the function $g: [-1, 1] \to [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$ defined by $g(x) = \arcsin x$ is the inverse of the function $f: [-\pi/2, \pi/2] \to [-1, 1]$ defined by $f(x) = \sin x$.
If $\theta \notin [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$, $\arcsin(\sin\theta) \neq \theta$ since $\theta \notin [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$. We can still evaluate $\arcsin(\sin\theta)$ in this case since the function $h: \mathbb{R} \to [-1, 1]$ defined by $h(x) = \sin x$ is defined for every real number $x$.