Let $A$ be a commutative Banach algebra.
Consider the exponential function $$\exp(\lambda x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(\lambda x)^n}{n!},$$ where $x \in A$ and $\lambda \in \mathbb C$. We can easily show that $\exp$ is entire (and hence continuous) in $A$ by showing that it converges for every $x \in A$.
Now, in a problem that I am working on, I require to show that $$\exp(-\lambda x) \cdot\exp(\lambda x)=1$$ using the above power series definition.
How can I go about showing this using the power series definition of $\exp$?
HINTS
UPDATE
For example you can use the low end of the series to check yourself. $$ (1 + z + z^2/2 + \ldots)(1 - z + z^2/2 \pm \ldots) = 1 + z(1-1) + z^2(1/2-1+1/2) + \ldots = 1 $$
UPDATE 2
I don't want to give it away completely. Note that $$ \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{(-1)^k}{k! (n-k)!} = \frac{1}{n!} \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k \binom{n}{k} $$ and look into the Binomial Formula for $(a+b)^n$ to see a clever interpretation of the sum...