I'm currently reading Rogalski's notes on noncommutative projective algebraic geometry (which can be found here) and I'm currently trying to fill out the details of Lemma 1.24 (2). The step which I don't understand is why the map $h$ is an isomorphism. I understand that there is an isomorphism $P/PA_{\ge 1} \rightarrow Q/QA_{\ge 1}$, and how we can lift this to a map $h: P \rightarrow Q$, but I can't see either injectivity or surjectivity of $h$. I feel like graded Nakayama should be relevant, but can't see why.
Showing minimal graded free resolutions are isomorphic
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I want to give a second proof for $P \cong Q$ which I find more instructive. As a drawback - in contrast to the more general proof in my first answer - it requires a finiteness condition.
Since $P$ is graded free, $P \cong \bigoplus_i A(-a_i)$ (all isomorphisms are as graded modules unless otherwise stated). For an integer $d$ let $I_{P,d} := \{i \mid a_i = d\;\}$. Hence $$P \cong \bigoplus_d \bigoplus_{I_{P,d}}A(-d)\quad,\quad Q \cong \bigoplus_d \bigoplus_{I_{Q,d}}A(-d)\tag{$\ast$}$$ Set $k := A/A_{\ge 1}$. Note that $A(-d)/A(-d)A_{\ge 1}=k(-d)$ is a graded $k$-module concentrated in the single degree $d$. Hence $$P/PA_{\ge 1} \cong \bigoplus_d \bigoplus_{I_{P,d}}k(-d)\quad,\quad Q/QA_{\ge 1} \cong \bigoplus_d \bigoplus_{I_{Q,d}}k(-d)$$ where the inner sum is the component of degree $d$. Since we already know $P/PA_{\ge 1} \cong Q/QA_{\ge 1}$, we have $$\bigoplus_{I_{P,d}}k(-d) \cong \bigoplus_{I_{Q,d}}k(-d)$$ as $k$-vector spaces. Now suppose $I_{P,d}$ is finite for all $d$. Then the left hand side has $k$-dimension $\#I_{P,d}$. By the isomorphism, the right hand side is also finite dimensional. Thus $I_{Q,d}$ is finite and $\#I_{P,d}=\#I_{Q,d}$. Now, $P \cong Q$ by $(\ast)$.
Let $\varphi: P/PA_{\ge 1} \rightarrow Q/QA_{\ge 1}$ be the graded isomorphism and let $h:P \to Q$ resp. $g:Q \to P$ be graded lifts of $\varphi$ resp. $\varphi^{-1}$. Then $gh\equiv \operatorname{id}_P \operatorname{mod} PA_{\ge 1}$ and $hg\equiv \operatorname{id}_Q \operatorname{mod} QA_{\ge 1}$. Hence it suffices to show that $gh, hg$ are isomorphisms. This follows from:
Proof: Denote the right hand side by $R$. Hence $$\operatorname{id}-f\circ R = (\operatorname{id}-f)^{n+1}$$ Let $x \in M$ be of degree $n$. Since $f$ induces the identity on $M/MA_{\ge 1}$ we have $x-f(x) \in MA_{\ge 1}$, i.e. there are homogeneous $a_i^1\in A_{\ge 1}, x_i^1\in M$ with $\deg(x_i^1a_i^1)=n\,$ (in particular $\deg x_i^1 \le n-1)$ such that $x-f(x)=\sum_i x_i^1a_i^1$. Hence $$(\operatorname{id}-f\circ R)(x)=\sum_i (\operatorname{id}-f)^n(x_i^1)a_i^1.$$ By applying the same argument to $x_i^1$, we can write $$(\operatorname{id}-f\circ R)(x)=\sum_i (\operatorname{id}-f)^{n-1}(x_i^2)a_i^2.$$ with homogeneous $a_i^2,x_i^2$ and $\deg(x_i^2)\le n-2$. Continuing this process, we have in the last step
$$(\operatorname{id}-f\circ R)(x)=\sum_i (\operatorname{id}-f)(x_i^n)a_i^n$$ with $\deg(x_i^n) \le 0$. Once more write $(\operatorname{id}-f)(x_i^n)= \sum_j x_j^{n+1}a_j^{n+1}$ with homogeneous $a_j^{n+1}\in A_{\ge 1},x_j^{n+1}\in M$ and $\deg(x_j^{n+1}a_j^{n+1})=0$. But because $\deg(a_j^{n+1})\ge 1$, $x_j^{n+1}$ has negative degree, meaning $x_j^{n+1}=0$ since $M_{<0}=0$. Hence $(\operatorname{id}-f\circ R)(x)=0$. So in degree $n$: $$f \circ R = \operatorname{id}=R \circ f$$ where the last identity uses that $f$ commutes with $R$. qed