A partially ordered set $(X, \leq)$ is called a lattice if for every pair of elements $x,y \in X$ both the infimum and suprememum of the set $\{x,y\}$ exists. I'm trying to get an intuition for how a partially ordered set can fail to be a lattice. In $\mathbb{R}$, for example, once two elements are selected the completeness of the real numbers guarantees the existence of both the infimum and supremum. Now, if we restrict our attention to a nondegenerate interval $(a,b)$ it is clear that no two points in $(a,b)$ have either a suprememum or infimum in $(a,b)$.
Is this the right way to think of a poset that is not a lattice? Is there perhaps a more fundamental example that would yield further clarity?

The set $\{x,y\}$ in which $x$ and $y$ are incomparable is a poset that is not a lattice, since $x$ and $y$ have neither a common lower nor common upper bound. (In fact, this is the simplest such example.)
If you want a slightly less silly example, take the collection $\{\emptyset, \{0\}, \{1\}\}$ ordered by inclusion. This is a poset, but not a lattice since $\{0\}$ and $\{1\}$ have no common upper bound.