Question
Solve for the following : $$\frac{\pi}{4}=\frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2}+\arctan(x+1)$$
Clearly I would mutliply both sides by 2 but then I would get the following :
$$\frac{\pi}{2}=e^x-e^{-x}+\arctan(x+1)$$
I was wondering how I would simplify from here. Would i convert $\arctan$ into $\frac{\arcsin}{\arccos}?$
preferably done without using hyperbolic trig functions
You can guess that $0$ is a solution, and because the derivative of $e^x-e^{-x}+2\arctan(x+1)$ is always positive, we know that $0$ is the only solution.