I am reading a paper:
I am confused about the following (see equations (2) and (3) in the paper):
http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/7039413/
or
http://groups.csail.mit.edu/robotics-center/public_papers/Majumdar14a.pdf
Consider the following condition:
$$V(x) \leq \rho \Longrightarrow \dot{V}(x) <0$$
The paper says that the sufficient condition for the above is:
$$(x^Tx)(V(x)-\rho)+L(x)\dot{V} \geq 0$$
My question is:
Obviously $x^Tx \geq 0$ and $(V(x)-\rho)\leq 0$. So the first part is less than or equal to $0$.
$\dot{V}<0$. So even though $L(x)<0$, there is no guarantee that the whole function is greater than or equal to $0$. I have no idea why it is the sufficient condition for the first inequality.
Please advise, thanks!
You got the logic backwards. The author is saying that Equation (3) is sufficient for Equation (2). In other words, Equation (3) implies (2), not the other way around. Specifically,
$$\Big(\big((x^Tx)(V(x)-\rho)+L(x)\dot{V} \geq 0 \implies -L(x)\dot{V}\le (x^Tx)(V(x)-\rho)\big)\bigwedge -L(x)\ge 0\Big) \implies \big(V(x)-\rho\le 0\implies \dot V\le 0\big).$$