This might be similar to my previous question, however I don't see how to use the same logic here. I've recently came across the fact that the sum of $X\sim \text{Po}(\gamma)$ and $Y\sim \text{Po}(\delta)$ (if they are independent) has the distribution $\text{Po}(\gamma + \delta)$ and also that $$P(X= k | X+Y = n) = \text{Bi}( n, \gamma/(\gamma+\delta); k) \quad n\in \mathbb N_0, k=0, \dots, n$$ which was proven by showing that $$P(X=k, X+Y = n) = \text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n) \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/ (\gamma + \delta); k)$$ i.e. "splitting" the joint probability into $P(X+Y=n)$ and $P(X=k|X+Y=n)$.
My main question is: How did we prove statement? That is how do we know that what we really found is the factorization into $P(X+Y=n)P(X=k|X+Y=n)$ and haven't just "accidentally" stumbled across the expression for a Poisson and Binomial probability in the expression.
edit: Possibly a (much) better way of asking is: we know that $$P(X+Y=n)P(X=k|X+Y=n)=\text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n) \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/ (\gamma + \delta); k)$$ But how do we know that $$P(X+Y=n) = \text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n)$$ $$P(X=k|X+Y=n)= \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/ (\gamma + \delta); k)$$
This answer is based on BGM's comment.
We start with this equality $$P(X+Y=n)P(X=k|X+Y=n)=\text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n) \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/ (\gamma + \delta); k)$$
Since one of the expressions on each side does not depend on $k$, we can sum both sides w.r.t. $k$ to obtain that $$P(X+Y=n) \sum^{n}_{k=0} P(X=k|X+Y = n) = \text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n) \sum^n_{k=0} \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/(\gamma + \delta); k)$$ Both sums equal one since we're summing over the whole distribution, yielding $$P(X+Y=n) = \text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n)$$ Dividing both sides of the original expression by $\text{Po}(\gamma + \delta; n)$ yields $$P(X = k | X+Y = n) = \text{Bi}(n, \gamma/ (\gamma + \delta); k)$$