Prove or contradict:
There are infinite open sets $U_1,U_2,...\in \mathbb{R}$ such that : $\mathbb{Q}=\bigcap^\infty _{i=1} U_i $
So I saw the following answer:
No, becuase if it was true,$\mathbb{Q}=\bigcap^\infty _{i=1} U_i $ ,then:
$\phi = \bigcap_{q\in \mathbb{Q}}\mathbb{R} \setminus \{q\} \ \cap \bigcap^\infty_{i=1}U_i$
which contradicts $Baire$ theorem.
Why does it contradicts it?
Baire's theorem says that the intersection of countably many open sets with a certain property is never empty.
What is that property?
Do you see why the sets of the form $\mathbb{R}\setminus\{q\}$ and $U_i$ have this property? (HINT: the first is easy; for the second, what can you say about the sets $U_i$ and $\mathbb{Q}$?)
Side note: "$\mathbb{R}\setminus q$" is incorrect notation. "$A\setminus B$" only makes sense if $A, B$ are both sets.