I have to prove for $x\:\in \:\mathbb{R}\:$ and $\:n,\:p\:\in\:\mathbb{Z}$, that:
$x^{\underline{n+p}}=n^{\underline{n}}\:\left(x-n\right)^{\underline{p}}$
Without resolving with Capital pi notation, how you would resolve it?
My idea is to apply induction only on n, and then on p but i am not sure with i have to analyse the following cases when:
(I) $n\:=\:0,\:p\:=0$
(II) $n\:=\:0\:and\:p\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^+$
(III) $p\:=\:0\:and\:n\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^+$
(IV) $n\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^+\:and\:p\:\in \:\:\mathbb{Z}^+$
(V) $n\:=\:0\:and\:p\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^-$
(VI) $p\:=\:0\:and\:n\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^-$
(VII) $n\:\in \:\mathbb{Z}^-\:and\:p\:\in \:\:\mathbb{Z}^+$
This follows directly from the definition: $$ m^{\underline{n}}=\frac{m!}{(m-n)!}=\frac{\Gamma(m+1)}{\Gamma(m-n+1)}. $$ We write \begin{align} x^{\underline{n+p}} &=\frac{\Gamma(x+1)}{\Gamma(x-n-p+1)}\\ &=\frac{\Gamma(x+1)}{\Gamma(x-n-p+1)}\cdot\underbrace{\frac{\Gamma(x-n+1)}{\Gamma(x-n+1)}}_{=1}\\ &=\frac{\Gamma(x+1)}{\Gamma(x-n+1)}\cdot\frac{\Gamma(x-n+1)}{\Gamma(x-n-p+1)}\\ &=x^{\underline{n}}(x-n)^{\underline{p}}. \end{align}