When one learns about quotient and product spaces in topology for the first time, it is perhaps natural to expect that they would behave like mutual inverses:
Topological Freshman's Dream (TFD). For a space $X$ and subspace $\emptyset \neq Y\subseteq X$, the spaces $(X/Y)\times Y$ and $X$ are homeomorphic.
It is not too hard to see that TFD is not true even for very simple spaces. For example, pick $X=[0,1]$ and $Y=\{0,1\}$, then $X/Y\times Y$ is the disjoint union of two copies of $S^1$, obviously not the same as $X$.
There are two trivial cases when TFD does hold, when $Y$ is a single point and when $Y$ is the whole space $X$.
Q. Is there any nontrivial example when TFD holds?
I've tried for a while to construct such an example without success.
Some incomplete observations:
- If $X$ is connected, then $Y$ must be as well. Otherwise, $(X/Y)\times Y$ would be disconnected.
- We can apply the tools of algebraic topology to see, for example, that TFD implies $\pi_n(X)\cong\pi_n(X/Y)\times\pi_n(Y)$. This condition is quite hard to satisfy since it implies that the homotopy groups of the quotient space $X/Y$ are simpler than that of $X$, which generally fails quite spectatularly. A similar idea can also be applied to the homology and cohomology groups.
- A special case of the above point implies that if $X$ is simply connected, then both $Y$ and $X/Y$ are simply connected (take the fundamental group $\pi_1$).
Any input is appreciated!
There are many examples where both $X/Y\cong X$ and $X\times Y\cong X$, from which it follows that $X/Y\times Y\cong X$. Probably the easiest is if $X$ is an infinite discrete space and $Y$ is any nonempty subspace of $X$ such that $|X\setminus Y|=|X|$. For a less trivial example, you could take $X=\mathbb{Q}$ or $X=\{0,1\}^\mathbb{N}$ and $Y$ any nonempty finite subset of $X$ (for these it takes some work to show that $X/Y\cong X$).
Here's a nontrivial example along these lines where $X$ is a CW complex. Let $X\subset\mathbb{R}^2$ be the union of all the circles of radius $1$ centered at points of the form $(2a,3b)$ where $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}$. This is a disjoint union of infinitely many infinite "chains of circles" attached at single points. Let $Y=\{(0,1),(0,-1)\}$. Then $X/Y\cong X$, since this quotient just takes one of the circles and pinches it together to form two circles (so its chain of circles remains an infinite chain of circles), and $X\times Y\cong X$ since that product just doubles the already infinite number of chains of circles in $X$.