I am reading this post where @Yanko gives an answer that proves
$$\max_{x} \max_{y} f(x,y) = \max_{x, y} f(x,y)$$ for a function $f(x,y)$. Please let me quote the answer
Let $(x_0,y_0)$ be any two elements. Then clearly we have that $f(x_0 ,y_0) \leq\max_y f(x_0 ,y)$
Moreover we notice that $\max_x \max_y f(x,y)$ is the maximum over elements of the form $\max_y f(x',y)$ for some $x'$. In particular this implies that $f(x_0 ,y_0)\leq \max_y f(x_0 ,y)\leq \max _x \max_y f(x,y)$. As $x_0,y_0$ were chosen arbitrarily we may conclude that $\max_{x,y} f(x,y)\leq \max_x\max_y f(x,y)$ and the inequality in the other direction is obvious.
I am trying to understand the last sentence, i.e.,
As $x_0,y_0$ were chosen arbitrarily we may conclude that $\max_{x,y} f(x,y)\leq \max_x\max_y f(x,y)$ and the inequality in the other direction is obvious.
Could you please someone provide some more details on how this? Also, does this proof hold for non-separable functions $f(x,y)$? Could you please give an example?
By definition of max, it should be immediate that
$$\max_{x}\max_{y}f(x,y)\leq \max_{x,y}f(x,y).\quad (1)$$
Now note we have the following for any $(x_0,y_0)$:
$$ f(x_0,y_0)\leq \max_y f(x_0,y)\leq \max_x\max_yf(x,y).\quad (2)$$
Choosing $(x_0,y_0)\in \arg\max_{x,y}f(x,y)$ in $(2)$ gives
$$ \max_{x,y}f(x,y)\leq \max_x\max_yf(x,y).\quad (3)$$
$(1)$ and $(3)$ give the desired result.