Say I have $X \sim \mathcal N(0, 1)$ and $Y\sim \mathcal N(0, 1)$. Is variance of $XY$ must be $1$?
I've use Python do a simulation test:
import numpy as np
mean, var = 0., 0.
for i in range(1000000):
x = np.random.randn()
a = np.random.randn()
z = np.random.randn()
m = np.random.randn()
y = x * a * z * m
mean += y
var += y**2
mean/1000000, math.sqrt(var/1000000)
The result is (0.0011857316895149386,1.0059557917785764), which saying the Variance is $1$.
The simulation code use four standard normal distribution, I've did production of two got same result.
Assuming $X$ and $Y$ are independent.
If $X$ and $Y$ are independent (you did not say that in your question) then: $$\mathbb EXY=\mathbb EX\mathbb EY=0$$ so that: $$\mathsf{Var}(XY)=\mathbb EX^2Y^2=\mathbb EX^2\mathbb EY^2=1$$