In the book Riemannian Geometry, page 91, Do Carmo writes:
$$\langle \nabla _{[X,Y]}Z,Z \rangle = \frac{1}{2}[X,Y]\langle Z,Z \rangle$$
I could not understand how this happens. Can someone explain this to me please?
In the book Riemannian Geometry, page 91, Do Carmo writes:
$$\langle \nabla _{[X,Y]}Z,Z \rangle = \frac{1}{2}[X,Y]\langle Z,Z \rangle$$
I could not understand how this happens. Can someone explain this to me please?
On
If $(M,g)$ is Riemannian manifold, the Levi-Cevita connection is the unique affine connection on $TM$ which is torsion-free and compatible w.r.t. $g$ :
So, in particular, $$[X,Y]\cdot\langle Z,Z\rangle = \langle \nabla_{[X,Y]}Z,Z\rangle +\langle Z,\nabla_{[X,Y]}Z\rangle $$ that is: $$\dfrac{1}{2} [X,Y]\cdot \langle Z,Z\rangle = \langle \nabla_{[X,Y]}Z,Z\rangle.$$
For vector fields $U, V, W$ on a ($C^1$) Riemannian manifold, we have the Leibniz Rule $$ W \langle U, V \rangle = \nabla_W \langle U, V \rangle = \langle \nabla_W U, V \rangle + \langle U, \nabla_W V \rangle \textrm{.} $$ Now, take $U := Z, V := Z, W := [X, Y]$. (In fact, this argument works for any connection $\nabla$ compatible with the metric.)