If $x̂ ∈ R^n$ is a vertex of $C_1 ∩ C_2$, where $C_1∈R^n$ and $C_2∈R^n$ are nonempty convex sets, then $x̂$ is either a vertex of $C_1$ or a vertex of $C_2$.
Is this a claim valid? Is there any way we can prove/disprove this claim numerically?
If $x̂ ∈ R^n$ is a vertex of $C_1 ∩ C_2$, where $C_1∈R^n$ and $C_2∈R^n$ are nonempty convex sets, then $x̂$ is either a vertex of $C_1$ or a vertex of $C_2$.
Is this a claim valid? Is there any way we can prove/disprove this claim numerically?
This image should convince you that this is untrue for $n \ge 2$. The result is true for $n=1$ though.