I am studying a definition of an extensive category:
An extensive category is a category $E$ with finite coproducts such that pullbacks of finite-coproduct injections along arbitrary morphisms exist and finite coproducts are disjoint and stable under pullback.
I would like to verify my understanding of the part "pullbacks of finite-coproduct injections along arbitrary morphisms exist": Let $f_A:A \to C$ and $f_B:B \to C$ be arbitrary morphisms.
Does that part imply that there exists a pullback $P$ with some morphisms $p_A:P \to A$ and $p_B:P \to B$ such that $f_A \circ p_A = f_B \circ p_B$?
Are these morphisms $p_A$ and $p_B$ (called) finite-coproduct injections? But then how does their finite-coproduct relate to the pullback $P$?
To be honest, I think I am lost. If I could see the words transformed to the symbols, it would remove ambiguity and uncertainty for me.
Thanks to Zhen Lin for his comment, here is what I believe is the correct interpretation of the words and phrases having been unclear to me.
i) The pullback of the morphism $f_A:A \to C$ along the morphism $f_B:B \to C$ is the morphism $p_B:P \to B$ where $\langle P, p_A, p_B \rangle$ is the pullback, i.e. $f_A \circ p_A = f_B \circ p_B$ where $P$ is universal.
ii) Then the sentence "pullbacks of finite-coproduct injections along arbitrary morphisms exist" means the following: Let $i_A:A \to A \coprod B$ be a coproduct injection and let $f:D \to A \coprod B$ be an arbitrary morphism. Then the pair of the arrows $\langle i_A, f \rangle$ has a pullback.