Now I know that this question has been asked before here, but the reason I'm asking this again is because the example given in the question there, namely one of Peano's Axioms is very clearly an axiom to me, given that Peano's Axioms propose the existence of a certain set with certain properties, while I find I still do not see the difference in other examples.
Sometimes I feel the word axiom is used where the word definition should be used instead. The most glaring example coming to me right now are the field axioms. The field axioms do not give us a statement that we assume to be true. They do not propose the existence of anything or determine something to be universally true. They just give us a definition for a certain type of set, and say that if a set fulfills these properties, then we can call it a field. Isn't this exactly what a definition is?
I shall compare this to an example from linear algebra. If $A$ is a square matrix and $A^TA=I$, then $A$ is an orthogonal matrix. We do not say that this is the orthogonal matrix axiom, but rather call it a definition for the orthogonal matrix. In the same way, why do we not call the field axioms field definitions instead?
My two cents: The "field axioms" are the axioms upon which we build field theory. They say what a field is, the same way the Peano axioms say what the natural numbers are, or the ZF axioms say what a set is. So it's not wrong to call them axioms.
But I can agree that it's a blurry line.