I've been learning about derived functors recently, and I had conceptualized them as fulfilling the following goal:
Suppose that we had a left-exact functor $F:\mathcal{A} \to \mathcal{B}$ between two abelian categories. If we had a short exact sequence $0 \to A \to B \to C \to 0$, then hitting this with $F$ gives an exact sequence $0 \to FA \to FB \to FC$. Now I thought that the "goal" of the right derived functor here was to find a way to form an exact sequence here, but why are the right derived functors the "correct" idea.
I could certainly make a silly sequence like $0 \to FA \to FC \to FC \to FC/\operatorname{Im} \to 0$. This of course has to be wrong because it would "neglect" any of the homology or cohomology theory, but then what is the goal? I suppose I'm wondering what question was being posed for these derived functors to be the correct tool, because it can't be completing an exact sequence (at least not in the way I had understood it.)
In particular why do we take injective (dually projective) resolutions? While I haven't seen a cohomology theory "in the wild", they seem to be about failure of local to global conditions, and an injective module is one which allows me to extend any morphism from a submodule to the entire module, which is somewhat of a local to global situation, so is that a justification for why injective resolutions are the correct idea?
I acknowledge this question is vague, and if I should add more context please let me know, thanks in advance for the help.
$FC/\mathrm{Im}$ is not a universally computed object. You'd need to work out what it is in your case, which is maybe hard, but more pressingly you could not use that calculation for any other exact sequence. If $FC/\mathrm{Im}$ vanishes in your case, great, but that wouldn't tell me anything about some other sequence $0\to A'\to B'\to C'$.
$FC/\mathrm{Im}$ is only relevant in your special case, but $\mathbb{R}F^1(A)$ can be calculated once and for all and would play the role of $FC/\mathrm{Im}$... and notice the astonishing independence of this thing from $C$ and from the map $B\to C$, it somehow only depends on $A$. Leaving universality of derived functors aside, as that is something slightly different, we have the power to make universal computations; if I already know $\Bbb RF^1(A)=0$ I know that sequence $0\to FA\to FB\to FC\to0$ is exact, regardless of what $B,C$ and $B\to C$ are. The derived functors offer a canonical and global obstruction to exactness, rather than specific ad hoc ones, and by studying these we can say stuff about lots of different exact sequences at the same time.
Derived functors are in particular functors, which is a very useful point - being able to talk about naturality of the long exact sequence is crucial. This point that, by construction, they behave like (co)homology (they are (co)homological functors) is also essential; group (co)homology and sheaf cohomology are literally just instances of derived functors. And again, homology theories are interesting because they provide canonical and universally applicable obstructions to stuff, universally relevant pieces of data, and having derived functors is one way to easily spit out such data. We can also do this for any left exact functor (in a nice category) and having a general theory to play with is good.
The universal properties of projective and injective resolutions are what guarantees a functorial structure. They play nicely with adjunctions and certain kinds of categorical construction, and allow you to define canonical comparison maps as well (this appears in group (co)homology in the form of the transfer, inflation, restriction, whatever, intermediary mappings).
There are also homotopical, model-theoretic points of view here which is important for more advanced homological algebra, so I'm told.