I need to find the pre-image at $\{0\}$ with the funtion in the domain $$f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$$
$$f(x) = \frac{1 }{1 + x^2}$$
I first found the inverse function $$f^{-1} = y = \frac{1 }{1 + x^2}$$ $$x = \frac{1 }{1 + y^2}$$ $$1 + y^2 = \frac{1 }{x}$$ $$y = (\frac{1 }{x} - 1)^{\frac{1 }{2}} = f^{-1}(x)$$
Then I replace $x$ with $0$: $$ f^{-1}({0}) = (\frac{1 }{0} - 1)^{\frac{1}{2}} $$
But since you can't divide by $0$, their is no pre-image at $0$ for this function in the given domain and range. Am I correct?
$\frac 1 {1+x^2}=0$ is imposible (because it gives $1=0$) therefore $f^{-1}(\{0\})=\emptyset$
again $f^{-1}$ is not the inverse function of $f$ it is the inverse image of $f$ and takes a set as an argument and gives back a set