I understand that if we have matrix $A$ and $B$ then $A \cdot B \neq B \cdot A$ as when you multiply the matrices in a different order, then their cells will shift in another form, thus making their multiplication equate differently in their product matrix.
but what is valid proof i can give to illustrate this
All help is much appreciated
A counter-example would suffice here. Take for example the following: $$\begin{align*} \pmatrix{1&0\\0&0} \pmatrix{0&1\\0&0} & = \pmatrix{0&1\\0&0}\\ & \qquad\not\parallel\\ \pmatrix{0&1\\0&0} \pmatrix{1&0\\0&0} & = \pmatrix{0&0\\0&0} \end{align*}$$