Question: 10 unique balls are distributed randomly among 8 ordered baskets, what is the probability that the first basket is empty and the second basket has at least 1 ball in it?
My approach: first we put one ball inside the second basket, there are $10$ ways to do this, for each ball we put in the second basket we have $7^9$ ways to distribute the remaining 9 balls into 7 baskets. Now since it's obvious that our sample space is of size $8^{10}$ we get that the answer is $\frac{10*7^9}{8^{10}}$
however that answer makes no sense since $10*7^9 > 7^{10}$ which is the number of ways to distribute 10 balls into 7 baskets(without the limitation that the second basket must have atleast 1 ball). Can someone explain to me where I went wrong?
Also please note that I'm not interested in getting the right answer using a different approach I'm specifically trying to understand what is wrong with my reasoning
Let $A_i$, for each $i=1,2,\ldots, 10$, be the event
$$A_i = \{\text{Ball $i$ is in the second basket,}$$ $$\text{and the first basket is empty}\}.$$ Then indeed, ${\bf{P}}[A_i]$ is, $\frac{7^9}{8^{10}}$ for each $i=1,2,\ldots, 10$. You however, want to calculate ${\bf{P}}[A_1 \cup A_2 \cup \ldots A_{10}]$, and to this end you [incorrectly] claimed that ${\bf{P}}[A_1 \cup A_2 \cup \ldots A_{10}]$ is $\sum_{i=1}^{10}{\bf{P}}[A_i]$ $=$ $\frac{10 \times 7^9}{8^{10}}$. This would be correct iff the $A_i$s were disjoint.
Where this is wrong however, is that the $A_i$s are not disjoint, and so ${\bf{P}}[A_1 \cup A_2 \cup \ldots A_{10}]$ is strictly less than $\sum_{i=1}^{10}{\bf{P}}[A_i]$ $=$ $\frac{10 \times 7^9}{8^{10}}$, and not equal, as you have claimed.