In Lee, p.178, it is said that $T^k(V)$ is isomorphic to $V^* \otimes... \otimes V^*$. But is this not stronger? Isn't this an equality? I thought if $v_1,..., v_n$ is a basis of $V$ and $\epsilon^1,...,\epsilon^n$ is its dual basis than $\epsilon^{i_1}\otimes...\otimes\epsilon^{i_n}$ is a basis of both $T^k(V)$ and $V^* \otimes... \otimes V^*$ no? So why just an isomorphism?
2026-03-25 06:28:39.1774420119
Why are $T^k(V)$ and $V^* \otimes... \otimes V^*$ just isomorphic?
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