I was trying to find the projection of a flat surface onto an arbitrary plane and I came across this Wikipedia article,
The projected area onto a plane is given by the dot product of the vector area $\mathbf S$ and the target plane unit normal ${\hat {\mathbf {m} }}$: $${\displaystyle A_{\parallel }=\mathbf {S} \cdot {\hat {\mathbf {m} }}}$$
While this result is intuitive, since one can think that the vector projection of $\mathbf {S}$ over ${\hat {\mathbf {m} }}$ would yield a new vector area $\mathbf S_{\hat {\mathbf {m} }}= (\mathbf{S} \cdot \hat{\mathbf{m}}) \hat{\mathbf{m}}$ proportional to the projected surface, I wonder what would the proper way to justify this result be. Unfortunately, the article doesn't give more details about this.
I think maybe it is not worth giving a rigorous proof, if you can understand this property well.
The key of it is $\operatorname{Area}(S_{m})=\operatorname{Area}(S)\cdot\cos\theta$. Consider the simplest case. If the original rectangle and the projected rectangle share a same side, as you mentioned, then the result is obvious by simple geometry. Note that the translation and rotation of the original rectangle don't change the area of it, nor the area of the projected one. We know the relation remains true no matter where the rectangle it is on the plane. For the general surface, you can devide it into so many small rectangles, and conclude by taking the limit. If you would like a formal proof, it would essentially say the same thing except it is expressed with integrals.