Why is it that empty operations give the identity of that operation?
Wikipedia says that the empty product is taken to be 1 "by convention", but this convention is consistent with ideas that seem like an empty product (like $x^{0}$).
If I talk about the intersection of no sets (taking $U$ to be the "universal set") then logic demands the empty intersection be $U$ (because any element is vacuously in every set in an empty family, and is therefore in the empty intersection). $U$ indeed functions as the identity of intersections; for any $A \subseteq U$, $A \cap U = A$.
Same story for the union of sets. Logic demands that the union of no sets be the empty set, and this is indeed the identity of the union operation.
There seems to be much more than convention going on here, and it is consistent among binary operations of all types. So why is it that the operation on no operands tends to result in the identity of that operation?
Pardon, in advance, all the kooky notation I've made up in order to answer this question.
Everything you mention is an instance of a family of operators $\bigodot_{\alpha} : X^{\alpha} \to X$ on some set (or class) $X$ and some set (or class) of ordinals $\alpha$, such that:
Here I've written $\bigodot_{i<\alpha} x_i$ as shorthand for $\bigodot_{\alpha} ( x_i : i < \alpha )$, and $x \odot y$ as shorthand for $\bigodot_2 ( x,y )$.
In order for the second property above to hold for all $\alpha$, not just all $\alpha \ge 1$, you need to have, for all $x \in X$, $$\left(\bigodot_0 ( ) \right) \odot x = \bigodot_1 \{ x \} = x$$ and likewise $x \odot \left( \bigodot_0 () \right) = x$.
Thus, if it exists, $\bigodot_0()$ (i.e. the 'empty $\odot$') must be the identity for $\odot$.
This can be justified at a more general level. The operators you mention are all instances of products and coproducts in particular categories. The empty product is the terminal object of the category (if it exists), and the empty coproduct is the initial object (if it exists). Indeed: