"A certain disease has an incidence rate of 2%. If the false negative rate is 10% and the false positive rate is 1%, compute the probability that a person who tests positive actually has the disease."
For this question, why do we need to use Bayes' Theorem? I'm having trouble understanding why the answer is not simply 99% (100% - 1%). If we know for sure that the person has tested positive (as stated in the problem), then can't we simply ignore incidence rate and false negative rate and only consider false positives? There is only a 1% chance of the test being false positive so there's a 99% chance that the test is correct.

No. A false positive is when the test is positive even though the person doesn't actually have the disease. The complement probability of a false positive is a true negative (i.e.: the test is negative and the person doesn't have the disease).
Neither of these two probabilities are what we want, since we don't know whether or not the person has the disease. All we know is that they tested positive (it could be a true positive or a false positive).
In general, there are four possibilities:
If a test is positive, then it could be a True Positive or a False Positive. We want to find the probability that, out of these two options, it was a True Positive. This yields: $$ \frac{\Pr[\textsf{True Positive}]}{\Pr[\textsf{True Positive or False Positive}]} = \frac{(0.02)(0.9)}{(0.02)(0.9) + (0.98)(0.01)} = \frac{90}{139} = 0.6474 \ldots $$