I'm just wondering why the n choose k formula
$n \choose k$ = $\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$
always gets you a whole number. I know that obviously there can only be a whole number of "ways" to choose k items in n items, but I'm more interested on how the factorials divide.
Note that $k<n$. So when you write out what $n!$ contains, you will see $k!$ and $(n-k)!$ are included.