I was studying the following practice problem:
When throwing $n$ balls into $m$ distinguishable bins, what's the probability that bin $i$ has exactly $1$ ball in it?
This scenario was modelled by sampling without replacement where order matters, due to the balls being thrown one at a time. However, I am not seeing why order matters here as it is not said whether the balls are labelled or not.
(1) Why should we care about order just because there is an order to which we throw the balls?
(2) If the balls were unlabelled, would we still care about order simply due to how the balls are thrown in a certain order?
(3) If we had thrown the balls at the same time, would we not care about order if they were unlabelled?
Whether thrown one at a time or simultaneously is not the point, neither is it a question of order mattering/not mattering.
The crux of the matter is (although it has not been explicitly stated) that the throws are made uniformly at random, and the outcome of each throw is independent. $\;\;$ Also, with the italicized stipulations above, it is irrelevant whether the balls are thrown one at a time or together. (So throwing one die ten times, and throwing ten dice simultaneously is the same ) This way creates an equiprobable sample space because each ball has a $1/n$ chance of landing in any bin
We could instead want to count all the patterns of distribution of the balls. We can count them using stars and bars, but each pattern here is not equiprobable (Obviously, having all the balls in one bin is less probable than a more even distribution of balls)
To conclude, if we want to compute probabilities of balls occupying various bins, we need to use the first model with equiprobable sample space.