Why if the Legendre symbol satisfy $\left(\frac{a}p\right)=\left(\frac{p}a\right)$ then $\left(\frac{a}p\right) = 1$?

Question

Sorry for my stupid question:

This is in completion to this question Let $p$ be a prime of the form $p = a^2 + b^2$ with $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $a$ an odd prime. Prove that $(a/p) =1$

Why if the Legendre symbol satisfy $\left(\frac{a}p\right)=\left(\frac{p}a\right)$ then $\left(\frac{a}p\right) = 1$?

Answer 1

$$ (13|5) = (5|13) = -1 $$

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