There is a corollary in my book that says:
If E is an extension field of F, $\alpha \in E$ is algebraic over $F$, and $\beta \in F(\alpha)$, then $\deg(\beta,F)$ divides $\deg(\alpha,F)$.
In the proof they use that $F(\beta)\leq F(\alpha)$. But why do we have this? I mean since $\alpha$ is algebraic over F, and $\beta \in F(\alpha)$. We know that $\beta=c_0+\ldots+c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}.$
Now let $\gamma \in F(\beta)$. If $\beta$ is algebraic over F. Then $\gamma=d_0+\ldots +d_{m-1}\beta^{m-1}$. Now we can substitute $\beta$ with $\beta=c_0+\ldots+c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}$ and use that $\alpha^n=-a_{n-1}-\ldots-a_0$.(This comes from irr($\alpha$,F)).
But what if $\beta$ is transcendental over F? How do I show it then?
The field $F(\beta)$ can be viewed/defined as the intersection of all subfields of $K$ containing $\beta$ for some ambient field $K$ containing $F$ and $\beta$. Thus $F(\beta) \subset F(\alpha)$ follows directly from $\beta \in F(\alpha)$. You can also see this directly: if $\beta$ is in a field containing $F$, then so too is any rational function in $\beta$ with $F$ coefficients.
It is a also a fact (although the argument might not be immediately obvious) that if $\alpha$ is algebraic over $F$, then any polynomial in $\alpha$ with coefficients in $F$ is also algebraic over $F$. This means that $\beta $ cannot be transcendental as long as $\alpha$ is algebraic.