Problem
Let $X=(X_t)_{t\geq0}$ be an (a.s.) continuous $\mathbb{R}$-valued process with $X_0=0$ such that $(e^{i\lambda X_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2 t})_{t\geq 0}$ is a $\mathbb{C}$-valued local martingale for all $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$. Show that $X$ is a standard $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-Brownian motion.
Opening remark
The standard definition of a Brownian motion goes as follows:
A $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-adapted process $B=(B_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is called a standard $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-Brownian motion if:
- $B_0=0$ (a.s.)
- $B$ is (a.s.) continuous.
- $\forall s<t: B_t-B_s\sim\mathcal{N}(0,t-s)$
- $B_t$ has independent increments.
This and this solution for related problems make use of the so-called Lévy characterisation:
A $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-adapted process $B=(B_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is called a standard $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-Brownian motion if:
- $B_0=0$ (a.s.)
- $B_t$ is an (a.s.) continuous martingale.
- $B$ has the quadratic variation $\left\langle B\right\rangle_t = t$.
This equivalent definition looks very useful, but I wish to check all the conditions of the standard definition. (This is mainly because the Lévy characterisation is not mentioned in my lecture notes.) Finally, note that I have already solved the following similar problem:
Let $B$ be a standard $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-Brownian motion. Show that $(e^{i \lambda B_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2t})_{t\geq 0}$ is a $\mathbb{C}$-valued martingale for all $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$.
Trivial outline for the proof
First, note that $(X_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-adapted because the local martingale $(e^{i\lambda X_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2 t})_{t\geq 0}$ is. $(X_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is therefore a $\mathbb{R}$-valued $(\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$-adapted process by assumption.
- $X_0=0$ (a.s.) by assumption.
- $X$ is (a.s.) continuous by assumption.
- ???
- ???
Some ideas
If I knew (3.), I could try to show (4.) by calculating $\text{Cov}\left(X_t - X_s,X_v - X_u\right)=\mathbb{E}\left[\left(X_t - X_s\right)\left(X_v - X_u\right)\right] = 0$ for all $s<t\leq u<v$, but I feel like the information I have about $X$ is too limited to do that. Also, I have no idea how to make use of the fact that $(e^{i\lambda X_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2 t})_{t\geq 0}$ is a local martingale. Any help is appreciated here.
Questions
- Is checking all defining properties of a Brownian motion a reasonable approach here? If yes, how can we check (3.) and (4.)? Mere hints would be appreciated.
- Are there any interesting theorems (other than the Lévy characterisation) which show that a given process is a Brownian motion?
The main idea is to use the following fact:
In this case:
First, we show that $Z:=(e^{i\lambda X_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2 t})_{t\geq 0}$ is not only a local martingale but a martingale as well. Note that it is an adapted process because it is a local martingale.
We now show that $X$ is a standard $\mathbb{R}$-valued Brownian motion. Note that $(X_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is adapted because the martingale $(e^{i\lambda X_t + \frac{1}{2}\lambda^2 t})_{t\geq 0}$ is. $(X_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is therefore a $\mathbb{R}$-valued adapted process by assumption.