Might be a dumb question once you get to Kolmogorov but whether or not $A_n$'s are independent, is it possible
$$\liminf A_n \ne \limsup A_n$$
but $$P(\liminf A_n) = P(\limsup A_n)$$?
Possible cases to consider:
- $A_n$'s are/aren't independent.
- $\liminf A_n$ is/isn't empty.
- $\limsup A_n$ is/isn't empty.
- $\limsup A_n$ has probability 0/probability 1.
- $\liminf A_n$ has probability 0/probability 1.
Both events are 0,1. Notice that by definition if $\omega\in \liminf_nA_n$, then $\omega\in \limsup A_n$. So if $\liminf A_n\neq \limsup A_n$, then this implies there's some set $R$ which belongs to one but not the other. If $P(R)=0$ then everything is fine. But if $P(R)>0$, then this implies $P(\mbox{liminf}A_n)=0$ and $P(\mbox{limsup}A_n)=1$