This question came up in the context of Bayesian networks. If I have a network where variable C is dependent on both A and B, and I want to find P(A,B|C) (probability of A and B are true given C is true), is it valid to say that it's equal to the probability of A being true given both B and C are true, multiplied by P(B)?
So: $P(A,B \ |\ C) = P(A|B,C)P(B)$ ?
I got this idea from the formula I already know to be true, $P(A,B) = P(A|B)P(B)$. I'm wondering if this can be extended to the case where A and B are conditioned on another variable, and why it is true or not true.
Thanks in advance!

No, this can't hold. Consider e.g. a situation where $A,B,C$ are all the same event. Then $P(A\land B\mid C)$ and $P(A\mid B\land C)$ are both $1$, and your proposed equality becomes $1=P(B)$.
The right relativization of $P(A\land B)=P(A\mid B)P(B)$ to $C$ would be $$P(A\land B\mid C)=P(A\mid B\land C)P(B\mid C)$$