Assume we have two sequences: $\{X_{n}\}$ and $\{Y_{n}\}$, such that $X_{n}\overset{a.s.}{\to} a$ and $X_{n}\overset{a.s.}{\to} a$, with $a$ some constant. Next, let $$ Z_{n} = \gamma_{n}X_{n} + (1 - \gamma_{n})Y_{n}, $$ where $\{\gamma_{n}\}$ is some sequence (random or not), such that $0 \leq \gamma_{n}\leq 1$, for all $n$.
Does there exist some sequence $\{\gamma_{n}\}$ such that
$$ Z_{n}\overset{a.s.}{\not\to} a \,? $$
What if we weaken the condition from a.s. convergence to convergence in probability? My hypothesis is that in this case the sequence exist.
Let $X'_n=X_n-a$ and $Y'_n=Y_n-a$. Then $$ Z_n=\gamma_n(X'_n+a)+(1-\gamma_n)(Y'_n+a)= a+\gamma_n X'_n +(1-\gamma_n) Y'_n. $$ Since the convergence of $X_n\to a$ and $Y_n\to a$ imply that $X'_n\to 0$ and $Y'_n\to 0$, it follows from $0\leqslant \lvert \gamma_n X'_n\rvert\leqslant \lvert X'_n\rvert$ and $0\leqslant \lvert \gamma_n Y'_n\rvert\leqslant \lvert Y'_n\rvert$ that $Z_n\to a$ almost surely.
If we assume that $X_n\to a$ and $Y_n\to a$ in probability, the same reasoning gives the convergence in probability of $(Z_n)$ to $a$.