I have proved the following statement and I'm looking for a counterexample where $M$ or $N$ is not finitely generated so that the implication does not hold. I would apppreciate any tips.
Let $A$ be a local ring, $M$ and $N$ finitely generated $A$-modules. Show that if $M \otimes_A N = 0$ then $M=0$ or $N=0.$
Consider $M=N=\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}$, then $M\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} N = 0$, now take a localization: $\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}} \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}_{(p)} =0 $.