The usual scalar product on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is $\langle x,y \rangle = \sum_{i = 1}^n x_iy_i$.
Given two curves $\alpha,\beta:I \to \mathbb{R}^n$ I want to show that $\langle \alpha(t),\beta(t)\rangle' = \langle \alpha'(t),\beta(t) \rangle + \langle \alpha(t),\beta'(t) \rangle$
$\langle \alpha(t),\beta(t)\rangle' = (\sum a(t)_i \beta(t)_i)' = \sum (\alpha'(t)_i\beta(t)_i+\alpha(t)_i\beta'(t)_i) = \langle \alpha'(t),\beta(t) \rangle + \langle \alpha(t),\beta'(t) \rangle$
Therefore, this proof is quite easy but since this property is used through my Curves and Surfaces course I wonder if it remains true for general scalar products.
Please reason why it would hold or provide a counterexample.
It remains true with any scalar product on $\mathbb R^n$. To see it, you can use the fact that, denoting by $A = [a_{i,j}]$ the (constant) matrix of the scalar product, we have $\displaystyle \langle x,y\rangle = \sum_{i,j} x_ia_{i,j}y_j$ for all vectors $x,y\in\Bbb R^n$. Now, you can apply your idea with this formula and conclude...