How can I disprove this statement?
$$P(A\mid B) + P(A\mid \bar{B}) = 1$$
I tried giving a counterexample but I'm asked to get to some kind of contradiction using sets $A$ and $B$.
How can I disprove this statement?
$$P(A\mid B) + P(A\mid \bar{B}) = 1$$
I tried giving a counterexample but I'm asked to get to some kind of contradiction using sets $A$ and $B$.
Suppose that $P(B) = \frac{1}{2}$ and $P(A) = \frac{1}{2}$. Then, $P(\overline{B}) = 1-P(B) = 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}.$
Moreover, using the law of total probability:
$$P(A) = P(B)P(A|B) + P(\overline{B})P(A|\overline{B}) \Rightarrow $$ $$\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}P(A|B) + \frac{1}{2}P(A|\overline{B}) \Rightarrow $$ $$P(A|B) + P(A|\overline{B}) = 1.$$
As a consequence, you cannot disprove that
$$P(A|B) + P(A|\overline{B}) = 1$$
since there are random variables which satisfy the previous equation.