I was wondering whether correlation between $2$ variables inform us about their standard deviation.
Let's say $X$ has a standard deviation of $\sigma_1$ and $Y$ has a standard deviation of $\sigma_2$.
Group 1 - Made of equal elements of $X$ and $Y$ being negatively correlated with each other.
Group 2 - Made of equal elements of $X$ and $Y$ positively correlated with each other.
Is is possible to claim which group has a lower standard deviation or variance?
By definition
$$\text{Corr}(X,Y)=\frac{\text{Cov}(X,Y)}{\sigma_X\sigma_Y}$$
We cannot conclude anything about the standard deviations from the correlation since correlation depends on covariance $and$ standard deviation.
In fact, the standard deviations are only used to scale the covariance so that the correlation will lie between $-1$ and $+1$, improving interprebility.
Here is an example in R statistical software:
Suppose we multiply $X$ by a scalar.
This gives
$$\text{Corr}(X,Y)=7.83\cdot10^{-5}$$
$$\text{Corr}(10\cdot X,Y)=7.83\cdot10^{-5}$$
but
$$\sigma_X\approx3$$
$$\sigma_{10X}\approx15$$
so increasing the standard deviation did not change the correlation!