Does there exist analytic functions satisfying the following property?

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Which one of the following two statements is/are true?

$(\text a)$ There exists an analytic function $f\colon\Bbb C \longrightarrow \Bbb C$ such that $f(z) = z$ for all $z$ with $|z|=1$ and $f(z) = z^2$ for all $z$ with $|z|=2.$

$(\text b)$ There exists an analytic function $f\colon\Bbb C \longrightarrow \Bbb C$ such that $f(0) = 1,f(4i) = i$ and for all $z_j$ with $1 < |z_j| < 3,$ $j = 1,2,$ we have $$|f(z_1) - f(z_2)| \leq |z_1 - z_2|^{\pi/3}.$$

How do I proceed to find the correct option. Any help in this regard will be highly appreciated.

Thank you very much for your valuable time.

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a) It follows from that identity theorem that if $\lvert z\rvert=1\implies f(z)=z$, then $f(z)=z$ everywhere. Therefore, the answer is negative.

b) If $1<|z|<3$, then$$f'(z)=\lim_{w\to z}\frac{f(w)-f(z)}{w-z}=0,$$since$$\left|\frac{f(w)-f(z)}{w-z}\right|\leqslant|w-z|^{\pi/3-1}$$and $\frac\pi3-1>0$. So, $f$ is constant on the annulus $\{z\in\Bbb C\mid1<|z|<3\}$. Therefore, again by the identity theorem, it is constant, and therefore we can't have both $f(0)=1$ and $f(4i)=i$.