Recently I'm thinking about below question, but I can not prove or disprove it.
Is it true that for every model $M\models I\Delta_0$ there exists a model $M'\models PA$ such that $M'$ is end extension of $M$?
How can this statement prove or disprove?
Thanks.
I asked this question in math overflow and thanks to Joel David Hamkins now I know the answer.
By Incompleteness theorem $I\Delta_0 \nvdash Con(I\Delta_0)$, so there exists model like $M\models I\Delta_0+\neg Con(I\Delta_0)$. On the other hand $PA\vdash Con(I\Delta_0)$, so there is no model $M'\models PA$ such that $M'$ is end extension of $M$.