How do you demonstrate that transformation maps one region to another?

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I'm struggling to understand how to "demonstrate" that a transformation maps one region onto another. For example:

Consider the region $T$ given by $0≤p≤1$, $0≤q≤1$. Let $R$ be the region $0≤x≤1$, $0≤y≤1$.

Question: Demonstrate that the transformation $p(x) = 4x -4x^2$, $q=y$ maps $R$ onto $T$.

I wasn't exactly sure as what to do. I toyed around a bit and got:

$$dp = (4-8x)dx$$ and $$dq =dy$$

To be honest, I have no clue what I was doing as I haven't come across this style of question. If anybody could shed some light on how to tackle this type of question, it would be appreciated.

Thanks

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There is no single fool proof method for problems of this kind. At any rate differentiation might by an auxiliary move in certain situations, but is not required a priori. We are given the map $$f:\quad{\mathbb R}^2\to{\mathbb R}^2,\qquad (x,y)\mapsto (p,q):=(4x-4x^2,y)\ ,$$ and are told to prove that $f(T)=R$.

Since $q(x,y)=y$ we immediately can infer that a horizontal segment $y=c\in[0,1]$ in $T$ is mapped to the segment $q=c$ in $R$.

The graph of the function $$x\mapsto p(x)\qquad (0\leq x\leq 1)\tag{1}$$ in the (auxiliary) $(x,p)$-plane is an arc of a parabola through the points $(0,0)$ and $(1,0)$, and culminating at $\bigl({1\over2},1\bigr)$. (In order to obtain this culmination point we had to differentiate!) It follows that the function $(1)$ takes all values in $[0,1[\ $ exactly twice, the value $1$ exactly once, and does not take any values outside the interval $[0,1]$.

Altogether we can conclude that $f$ maps each segment $y=c\in[0,1]$ in $T$ onto the corresponding segment $q=c$ in $R$. Therefore the claim $f(T)=R$ is true.