'We play a game: I pick a number $n$ from 1 to 100. If you guess correctly, I pay you $n^2$ dollars and zero dollars otherwise. How much would you pay to play this game?'
I know the answer for the case where you are paid $n$ dollars if you guess correctly, and just want to see if I am correct for this other case.
The idea was to pick $k$ with probability $\frac{C}{k}$ where $C = \left(\sum_{j=1}^{100}\frac{1}{j}\right)^{-1}$. So then $\mathbb{E}[\text{winnings}] = \sum_{j=1}^{100}j^2 \mathbb{P}(\text{winnings} = j) = \sum_{j=1}^{100} j^2 \frac{1}{100}\frac{C}{j} = \frac{101}{2}C$. So I'd be happy to pay any amount less than or equal to $\frac{101}{2}C$. Is this correct? I'm worried it's a little too large as a value.
I think your $\frac{101}{2}C \approx 9.735$ looks far too large if the bank can just choose $1$. It rather depends on whether the bank has to choose uniformly at random or has a deliberate choice. Let's assume it is a deliberate choice or strategy chosen by the bank but unknown to the player. I suspect
If the banker changed the rules to remove the $100$ maximum so there was no limit on the positive integer chosen, then this amount would decrease slightly to $\frac6{\pi^2} \approx 0.6079$.
If the banker had to choose uniformly at random from $\{1,2,\ldots,100\}$, then the best strategy for the player would be to always bet on $100$, with an expected amount paid by the banker to the player of $\frac1{100}100^2 =100$. A better game-theoretic strategy for the banker would be the same as the optimal strategy as the player, picking $n$ with probability $\dfrac1{n^2\, H_{100,2}}$.