Consider $N$ items, and $N_1$ "hot items". We then select items, without replacement, until we got $n$ "hot items" ( $1\le n \le N_1 $, $n$ being a constant). Let $X$ be a random variable which represents the number of trials needed( to get the $n$ "hot items"). I need to calculate the Mean and the Variance of the variable.
So far i got this:
$$P[X=k] =\frac{ {N_1 \choose n}{N-N_1 \choose k-n} }{N \choose k}$$ So, the minimum extractions would be $n$ ( when i select all of the "hot items") and the maximum extractions would be $N-N_1+n$ ( i select all of the "non-hot-items" and then the $n$ "hot-items"). Kind of a hypergeometric distribution. I said kind of because it's not exactly the hypergeometric distribution. Random variable X represents the number of getting n "hot items" where n is constant, not k= 1,2... But when i need to calculate the Mean of $X$, i got:
$$E[X]=\sum_{k=n}^{N-N_1+n} {k\frac{ {N_1 \choose n}{N-N_1 \choose k-n} }{N \choose k}}$$
where I kinda get lost to it. Any idea how to solve this or i'm wrong on this?
The following is not a full solution but is too long for a comment.
First I don't think that the pmf for $X$ is correct. Note that we keep drawing until we get $n$ hot items. In particular, $X$ is the minimum number of draws until we get $n$ successes (successes being hot items). Your pmf accounts for $n$ successes in $k$ trials but does not require a success occur on the last trial. In particular the pmf for $X$ should be $$P(X=k)= \frac{\binom{N_1}{n-1}\binom{N-N_1}{k-n}}{\binom{N}{k-1}}\times \frac{N_1-n+1}{N-k+1} $$ The first term corresponding to $n-1$ successes in the first $k-1$ draws and then success on the final draw. Up to a different parametrization I think that $X$ follows a negative hypergeometric distribution.